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Terrorism (Protection of Premises) Act 2025, Home Office factsheets

1. A free community festival expects 1,200 people, has no ticketing, and asks for a suggested donation at the gate. Work through the six criteria and say whether it is a qualifying event, naming the criterion that decides it.
2. A qualifying event carries the enhanced requirements, the same list the largest venues carry. Explain why an event of 800 is treated that way while premises of 800 are enhanced only if that number is expected from time to time, and what the difference means for a one day show.
3. The Act requires no physical alteration and no purchase of equipment, yet an organiser must have public protection measures in place, one type of which is physical safety and security. Reconcile those two statements and explain what reasonably practicable is doing in the sentence.

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Regulation (EC) 852/2004, Annex II, as it has effect in Great Britain

1. Chapter I and Chapter II both exclude premises specified in Chapter III. Chapters IV to XII carry no such exclusion. Set a student to find that in the headings and say what it means for a trailer, and why the brevity of Chapter III is not permission.
2. Annex II gives one measurable requirement for a mobile unit and it is not a dimension. Identify it, then explain why a buyer comparing two units on a specification sheet cannot read compliance off it.
3. Take one paragraph of Chapter III, 2(f) on hazardous and inedible waste for instance, and specify the physical answer for a unit serving 200 covers over a six hour service. State what you had to assume and why the regulation does not tell you.

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The Construction (Design and Management) Regulations 2015, Schedule 2

1. Schedule 2 is given effect by regulations 4(2)(b), 13(4)(c) and 15(11), each naming a different party. Explain why none of the three discharges the others, and who is liable when a unit on site is inadequate.
2. Schedule 2 states no ratios: no number of closets per worker and no washbasins per shift. Given that, explain what a principal contractor actually uses to decide how many, and what they would produce if challenged.
3. Welfare units are usually sold by length and by photograph. Write the three questions a buyer should ask instead, each one traceable to a paragraph of Schedule 2.

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Terrorism (Protection of Premises) Act 2025, SI 2025/67, Simpler Recycling, EPR for packaging

1. Three dated obligations land inside 2027 from three departments. For each, state whether it binds the trader, the event organiser or neither, and say how you decided.
2. Martyn's Law requires no physical alteration to premises and no purchase of equipment. Explain what it does require of somebody trading inside a qualifying event, and who they have to ask.
3. One row on the timetable tells a reader they are not caught by a regulation. Find it, state both thresholds, and explain why a franchise group has to test itself differently from a single operator.

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GOV.UK towing rules, licence categories and weight and width limits

1. A candidate passed their driving test in 1994 and another in 2004. Both want to tow a 3,500 kg unit. Explain what each may lawfully do and what the second has to obtain.
2. Six units on the page sit exactly at the category BE limit. Explain the practical risk of specifying a unit at a limit rather than under one, and what evidence settles it on the day.
3. Maximum authorised mass is the plated figure and not what the unit weighs on the day. Explain why a mass calculated at design rather than weighed on the finished unit transfers a risk to the buyer, and who carries it.

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GSIUR 1998, Electricity at Work Regulations 1989, DVSA testing, waste carrier registration

1. Two of the four instruments on this page state no periodic interval at all. Identify them, and explain what actually produces an annual certificate in practice and why that is a commercial requirement rather than a statutory one.
2. Regulation 2(5) of GSIUR 1998 excludes a self propelled vehicle and a touring caravan. Explain why a drawbar trailer built for catering is caught, and what regulation 2(4)(d) then does to a welfare unit standing on a construction site.
3. Fourteen of the 23 units are over 1,020 kg unladen and none of them needs an annual test. Explain the second half of the DVSA entry that decides this, and name the specification decision that settles it.

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Twenty two obligations across nine markets, sorted by when they bind

1. Five of the obligations cannot be satisfied after the unit is built. Identify them and explain, for one, what a buyer's remedy actually is when it is discovered at a port.
2. The page is cut by timing rather than by country. Argue for or against that as the correct organising principle for a procurement team sourcing across three markets.
3. Canada's border agency states there is no provision to modify a non compliant vehicle into compliance after import. Explain what that does to the risk allocation in a supply contract, and which party should carry it.

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The Deposit Scheme for Drinks Containers (England and Northern Ireland) Regulations 2025

1. Regulation 8 defines a groceries retailer and then excludes a coffee shop and a hospitality venue by name. Explain what work those exclusions are doing, and name one kind of mobile drinks seller that is arguably still inside the definition.
2. A trailer is not permanently stationary and is arguably not a motor vehicle. Both matter to the MRP premises definition. Argue the case each way and say what evidence would settle it.
3. Regulation 28(2) lets a supplier for immediate consumption decide not to charge a deposit, and regulation 29 then requires a sign asking that empty containers are not removed. Explain what problem that pair is solving and what happens to the container.

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